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A 46-year-old woman presents with a thyroid swelling. Ultrasound shows a solid hypoechoic nodule with microcalcifications, irregular margins, and taller-than-wide shape, measuring 1.2 cm. TI-RADS scoring classifies the lesion as TR5 (high suspicion). She has no compressive symptoms and TSH is normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Repeat ultrasound in 6 months
B) Start levothyroxine suppression therapy
C) FNAC of the thyroid nodule
D) Observe unless the nodule becomes >2 cm

Answer: C

Explanation: The ultrasound features—solid, hypoechoic, microcalcifications, irregular margins, and taller-than-wide—indicate high malignancy risk, categorizing it as TI-RADS 5 (TR5). According to ACR TI-RADS criteria, FNAC is recommended for TR5 nodules measuring ? 1.0 cm. This patient’s 1.2 cm TR5 lesion crosses the FNAC threshold.

Teaching Points: - TR5 (high suspicion) ? FNAC ? 1.0 cm
- Ultrasound patterns are more important than size alone in TI
- RADS scoring
- TR5 nodules have the lowest cutoff for FNAC because of very high cancer risk

Before initiating nutritional support in a severely malnourished postoperative patient at risk of refeeding syndrome, what is the most appropriate management?

A) Start full calories immediately with monitoring
B) Give IV fluids without electrolytes for 24 hours
C) Correct electrolyte imbalances and vitamin deficiencies first
D) Delay feeding for 7 days until weight improves

Answer: C

Explanation: (Surgery setting):
Severely malnourished surgical patients are metabolically unstable. If feeds are started without preparing the body, intracellular electrolyte shifts can trigger hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia. Supplementation of B-complex, thiamine, and daily multivitamins must precede feeding to prevent metabolic collapse.

Teaching Points: - Do not start feeds before correcting electrolytes in high
- risk patients.
- Thiamine and high
- potency B vitamins should be administered before enteral nutrition.
- Refeeding risk is high in cachexia, prolonged NPO, postoperative sepsis, bowel obstruction relief, and long ICU stay.

Which of the following surgeries is considered high-risk according to the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI)?

A) Below-knee peripheral vascular bypass
B) Carotid endarterectomy
C) Open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair
D) Total knee replacement

Answer: C

Explanation: RCRI defines high-risk surgery as:

Intraperitoneal

Intrathoracic

Supra-inguinal vascular surgery

Open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair = supra-inguinal vascular ? high-risk

Incorrect options:

A. Below-knee bypass ? infra-inguinal vascular = not high-risk for RCRI

B. Carotid endarterectomy ? not high-risk per RCRI

D. Total knee replacement ? orthopedic ? not high-risk

Teaching Points: Teaching Point:

Only intraperitoneal, intrathoracic, and supra-inguinal vascular procedures qualify as high-risk in RCRI — not all vascular surgeries.

All of the following are true regarding disclosure of risks during informed consent EXCEPT:

A) Risks should be explained in a manner the patient can understand
B) Rare complications should be disclosed if they are considered material to the patient’s decision
C) Only complications with incidence >5% need to be disclosed
D) The patient’s personal values influence which risks require emphasis

Answer: C

Explanation: Risk disclosure is based on materiality to the patient, not percentage incidence. Even rare risks must be discussed if they may significantly affect the patient’s decision.

Teaching Points: Teaching Point:
Consent follows the reasonable patient standard, not numerical incidence criteria.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended postoperative element of the ERAS protocol for colorectal surgery?

A) Early removal of urinary catheter and drains
B) Early oral feeding and mobilization starting postoperative day 0–1
C) Maintenance of strict nil per oral (NPO) status until bowel sounds return
D) Scheduled non-opioid–based multimodal analgesia

Answer: C

Explanation: ERAS promotes early postoperative oral intake, which improves gut motility and reduces postoperative ileus. Waiting for bowel sounds before feeding is outdated and delays recovery.
Other ERAS-supported components include early catheter and drain removal, mobilization, and multimodal analgesia without routine reliance on opioids.

Teaching Points: Teaching Point:
In ERAS colorectal pathways, gut stimulation begins early — feeding and ambulation start on the day of surgery or day 1; prolonged NPO is avoided.

Which feature makes NRS-2002 different from other nutritional screening tools?

A) It is validated only for oncology patients
B) It includes disease severity in addition to nutritional status
C) It requires body composition analysis
D) It can only be done in ICU patients

Answer: B

Explanation: NRS-2002 is unique because it combines nutritional impairment score + disease severity score, improving prediction of clinical benefit from nutritional support.

Teaching Points: Teaching Point:
NRS-2002 = Nutritional Status (0–3) + Disease Severity (0–3) + Age ?70 (add +1).

Which imaging modality has the highest sensitivity for localizing an ectopic parathyroid adenoma in the mediastinum?

A) High-resolution neck ultrasound
B) Sestamibi scan alone
C) 4D-CT
D) MRI neck–mediastinum

Answer: C

Explanation: 4D-CT (3D CT + perfusion phase) provides superior spatial resolution and vascularity-based contrast washout characteristics, especially for ectopic glands in mediastinum, retroesophageal space, and tracheoesophageal groove. Ultrasound has a limited role for ectopic glands and MRI has inferior localization.

Teaching Points: Teaching Point:
4D-CT is preferred for re-operative cases and ectopic adenoma localization, especially when USG/MIBI are inconclusive.

Which is the most accurate indicator of ongoing severe UGIB during resuscitation:

A) Hemoglobin value at admission
B) Postural tachycardia
C) Increasing BUN/Creatinine ratio
D) Serum lactate

Answer: D

Explanation: Hemoglobin and BUN lag behind; lactate reflects tissue hypoperfusion and correlates with ongoing hemorrhagic shock and mortality risk.

Teaching Points: Teaching points:

Serial lactate is a strong prognostic marker in GI bleed

BUN/Cr rises in UGIB but is not a reliable indicator of severity

A 45-year-old woman presents with acute abdomen, tachycardia, BP 90/60. Ultrasound shows 12-cm left ovarian mass with ascites. CA-125 = 980. CT shows omental caking. Best surgical approach?

A) Staging laparotomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
B) Diagnostic laparoscopy to confirm malignancy
C) Laparotomy with maximal cytoreduction if feasible
D) CT-guided biopsy followed by NACT Answer: C. Laparotomy with maximal cytoreduction if feasible

Answer: C

Explanation: Patient is hemodynamically unstable + peritoneal carcinomatosis ? cytoreductive laparotomy is indicated.
Diagnostic laparoscopy delays critical surgery; biopsy risks tumor rupture.

Teaching Points: Goal in advanced ovarian cancer surgery ? No gross residual disease

Surgery first if performance status allows; NACT if disease unresectable or medically unfit

Ascites + omental cake = high probability of HGSC